Is Jesus God? Part 32: "Claim that God became man to understand suffering of man"

Return to the previous - Part 31: "God would save the messiah from harm & make him victorious"

Christians teach that God couldn’t understand man’s suffering and then had to take human form so that he could relate to them. This concept rejects the verses in the section of this article called “Jesus had to learn – God naturally knows all”. Many verses declare that God knows all without any limitations.

Exodus 3:7 “The LORD said, "I have indeed seen the misery of my people in Egypt. I have heard them crying out because of their slave drivers, and I am concerned about their suffering.”

This verse that show that God knew their pains, while in his natural form, not human form, o this throws this teaching completely out of the discussion.

Hebrews 2:17-18 “Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted.”

These verses state that he had to become human so that he “MIGHT” become ‘merciful and faithful’. This indicates he wasn’t beforehand if he had to ‘become’ human to receive such traits, meaning that God is not all-knowing and merciful to begin with. It is purely an insult to God if you attribute Jesus to being God, making God imperfect.

Numbers 23:19 “God is not human, that he should lie, not a human being, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?” (NIV)

Here God says he is not human, and that he speaks and acts on what he says, and in Exodus above, we see he clearly stated he understood their suffering and saved them.

1 Peter 2:21-23 “For you have been called for this purpose, since Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example for you to follow in His steps, WHO COMMITTED NO SIN, NOR WAS ANY DECEIT FOUND IN HIS MOUTH; and while being reviled, He did not revile in return; while suffering, He uttered no threats, but kept entrusting Himself to Him who judges righteously”

A few points in this passage need attention. 1- God is causing an innocent to suffer for the sins/crimes of others. How does this portray a loving, compassionate, fair God? You would accept a court judge to sentence you to death for the crimes of another, and be happy about it? 2- It says Jesus committed no sins, but there are other passages that prove he did. (see the section “Jesus sinned” to read more on that). 3- It says while suffering, he entrusted himself to God, who judges righteously. However, Jesus begged and pleaded him to save him, and was asking why God had forsaken him (Matthew 27:46 )…so how is that considered ‘trusting’?

Continue to the next Section – Part 33: "God doesn’t need Jesus to save mankind from sins"

Return to the Main Directory Listing Page for this Series

Recommended Reading:

Bible Corruption Series:

Part 1 – Intro to Bible Version Differences

Part 2 – 1 John 5:7, The Three That Bear Record in Heaven (Comma Johanneum)

Part 3 – John 7:53-8:11, Pericope of the Adulteress

Part 4 – Mark 16:9-20, Resurrection of Jesus

Part 5 – Conflicting Gospels on the Empty Tomb & Ascension of Jesus

The Corruption of the Torah

Is the Crucifixion of Jesus Really Foretold in the Old Testament?

Do Muslims Believe in the Bible?